ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
- B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
- C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
- D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.
2. A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Joint pain
- B. Malaise
- C. Rash
- D. Tender lymph nodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A TORCH infection can cause joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. These findings are characteristic of TORCH infections and are important to recognize in pregnant individuals as they can have serious implications for both the mother and the fetus. While joint pain, malaise, and rash can be present in TORCH infections, tender lymph nodes are a common finding that the healthcare provider should expect. Tender lymph nodes are often associated with the inflammatory response to infection and can be palpated during a physical examination. Therefore, in this scenario, the healthcare provider should anticipate the presence of tender lymph nodes in a client with a TORCH infection, making option D the correct answer.
3. When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
- A. Gonorrhea
- B. Chlamydia
- C. HIV
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Infections such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. It is crucial to identify and treat these infections promptly to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the infant. Therefore, all the given options are correct as they can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Other choices are incorrect because only gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be effectively treated during labor or immediately after birth to prevent vertical transmission.
4. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
- B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
- C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
- D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.
5. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
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