Nursing Elites

1. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

2. A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?

• A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
• B. Absence of vitamin K
• C. Physiologic jaundice
• D. Maternal cocaine abuse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.

3. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

4. When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
• B. Assess the fluid.
• C. Check cervical dilation.
• D. Begin FHR monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. The priority intervention when a client's water breaks is to assess the fetal well-being due to the risk of umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) will help the nurse ensure the fetus's well-being. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) or assessing the fluid (choice B) may provide information about the rupture of membranes but does not directly address fetal well-being. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is important but not the priority when the client's water has broken.

5. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

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