ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
- B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
- C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
- D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.
2. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
- B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
- D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.
3. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. Multifetal pregnancy
- C. Oligohydramnios
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Multiple risk factors can contribute to preterm labor, including urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, and oligohydramnios. These factors can lead to the uterus being irritated or overstimulated, potentially triggering early labor. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation and contractions, multifetal pregnancies have a higher risk of preterm labor due to increased uterine stretching, and oligohydramnios can lead to poor fetal growth and premature contractions. Therefore, clients presenting with these conditions require close monitoring and management to prevent preterm birth. Choices A, B, and C are all correct risk factors for preterm labor, making option D the correct answer.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 60
- B. 30
- C. 50
- D. 80
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV, the healthcare professional should set the IV infusion pump to administer 50 mL/hr. The calculation is as follows: 20 g / 500 mL = 2 g / X mL, X = 50 mL/hr. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choice B (30 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is half of the calculated rate. Choice D (80 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is higher than the calculated rate.
5. A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
- A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
- B. Every morning before arising
- C. 1 hour following intercourse
- D. Before going to bed every night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The basal body temperature should be taken every morning before arising as it provides the most accurate reading. This time ensures consistency and eliminates variations that may occur throughout the day due to activities or environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation can vary among individuals, and checking temperature on specific days may not align with the actual ovulation day. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between intercourse and basal body temperature. Choice D is incorrect because taking the temperature before going to bed does not provide a consistent baseline reading.
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