ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
- B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
- C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
- D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.
2. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
- A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
- B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
- C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
- D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.
3. A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
- A. Prepare for a cesarean birth.
- B. Assist the client to an upright position.
- C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.
- D. Assist the client to turn onto her side.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Turning the client onto her side is the appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position can help improve blood pressure by enhancing venous return, which may aid in increasing perfusion to vital organs. It can also alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, promoting better circulation and supporting blood pressure stabilization during labor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen her blood pressure due to decreased venous return. Lastly, there is no indication for an immediate vaginal delivery solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.
4. After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?
- A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
- B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
- C. Assess the client's temperature
- D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an amniotomy, the priority nursing action is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of fetal distress, as changes in the fetal heart rate could indicate potential complications related to the procedure. Observing the color and consistency of the fluid (Choice A) is important but not the priority over assessing fetal well-being. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice C) and evaluating the client for chills and increased uterine tenderness (Choice D) are not immediate priorities following an amniotomy.
5. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
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