Nursing Elites

1. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

• A. Active
• B. Transition
• C. Latent
• D. Descent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.

2. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

• A. Epidural anesthesia
• B. Urinary bladder catheterization
• C. Frequent pelvic examinations
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.

3. A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Poor bone formation
• C. Macrosomic fetus
• D. Neural tube defects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus, affecting the brain, spine, or spinal cord development. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (choice B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (choice C) refers to a baby with excessive birth weight and is not a typical outcome of folic acid deficiency in pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of childbearing age to take recommended folic acid supplements to prevent neural tube defects.

4. When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The circumcision will heal within a couple of days.
• B. I should not remove the yellow mucus that will form.
• C. I will clean the penis with each diaper change.
• D. I will give him a tub bath within a couple of days.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

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