ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.
2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
3. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?
- A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
- B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
- C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
- D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.
4. When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?
- A. Vaginal bleeding
- B. Swelling of the ankles
- C. Heartburn after eating
- D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is a concerning sign that could indicate serious complications like miscarriage or placental issues. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Swelling of the ankles (choice B), heartburn after eating (choice C), and lightheadedness when lying on the back (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious complications that require immediate attention.
5. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?
- A. Oxygen saturation
- B. Body temperature
- C. Serum bilirubin
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access