a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for chlamydia which of the following statements should the nurse provide
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

2. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

3. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.

5. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epstein's pearls are small pearly white nodules commonly observed on the roof of a newborn's mouth. They are considered a normal finding and typically disappear without treatment. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these benign nodules to differentiate them from other conditions and provide appropriate education to parents. The other choices are incorrect: A) Mongolian spots are blue or purple birthmarks commonly found on the skin; B) Milia spots are tiny white bumps on a newborn's nose and face; C) Erythema toxicum presents as a rash of flat red splotches with small bumps that can appear on a baby's skin.

Similar Questions

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A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
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