ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is assisting with an in-service for newly licensed nurses about neonatal abstinence syndrome in newborns. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The newborn will have decreased muscle tone.
- B. The newborn will have a continuous high-pitched cry.
- C. The newborn will sleep for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding.
- D. The newborn will have mild tremors when disturbed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A continuous high-pitched cry is a characteristic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from drugs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased muscle tone, sleeping for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding, and mild tremors when disturbed are not specific indicators of neonatal abstinence syndrome.
2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?
- A. Chvostek's sign
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Chadwick's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.
3. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
- A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
- B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
- C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.
5. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.
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