Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?

• A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
• B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
• C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.

2. A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This is due to an increase in blood volume.
• B. This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm.
• C. This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava.
• D. This is due to increased cardiac output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal hypotension during pregnancy is often caused by the weight of the uterus pressing on the vena cava when the client is lying on her back, which reduces blood flow to the heart. This compression can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and subsequent symptoms of hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because an increase in blood volume typically leads to increased blood pressure rather than hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm is not a common cause of maternal hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because increased cardiac output would not directly cause maternal hypotension.

3. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased platelet count
• B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. Decreased megakaryocytes
• D. Increased WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

4. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
• B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
• C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
• D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.

5. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

• A. Peanut butter
• B. Potatoes
• C. Apple juice
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

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