Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

3. When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?

• A. Vaginal bleeding
• B. Swelling of the ankles
• C. Heartburn after eating
• D. Lightheadedness when lying on back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is a concerning sign that could indicate serious complications like miscarriage or placental issues. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Swelling of the ankles (choice B), heartburn after eating (choice C), and lightheadedness when lying on the back (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious complications that require immediate attention.

4. While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
• B. Apply finger pressure to the presenting part
• C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario of umbilical cord prolapse during labor, the nurse should first call for assistance. Umbilical cord prolapse is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention and skilled assistance. Calling for help ensures that additional support is on the way to provide prompt intervention. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice A) is no longer recommended as it may worsen the situation. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (Choice B) can further compress the cord. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is important but should come after addressing the prolapsed cord.

5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

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