Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?

• A. Dark green leafy vegetables
• B. Deep red or orange vegetables
• C. White bread and rice
• D. Meat, poultry, and fish

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.

3. When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Insert the syringe tip after compressing the bulb.
• B. Suction each nare before suctioning the mouth.
• C. Insert the tip of the syringe at the center of the newborn's mouth.
• D. Stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a bulb syringe to suction a newborn's secretions is to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry no longer sounds like it is coming through a bubble of fluid or mucus. This indicates that the airways are clear, and further suctioning is not needed to prevent irritation or damage to the delicate tissues of the newborn's nose and throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because inserting the syringe tip before compressing the bulb, suctioning each nare before the mouth, and inserting the tip at the center of the mouth can potentially harm the newborn and are not recommended practices for using a bulb syringe in this context.

4. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
• B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
• C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
• D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Nausea
• B. Irregular vaginal bleeding
• C. Weight gain
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.

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