a nurse is caring for a client who is at 15 weeks of gestation is rh negative and has just had an amniocentesis which of the following interventions i
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Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

2. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

3. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

4. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

5. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.

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