Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Observe for uterine contractions.
• C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
• D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

2. A nurse concludes that the parent of a newborn is not showing positive indications of parent-infant bonding. The parent appears very anxious and nervous when asked to bring the newborn to the other parent. Which of the following actions should the nurse use to promote parent-infant bonding?

• A. Hand the parent the newborn and suggest that they change the diaper.
• B. Ask the parent why they are so anxious and nervous.
• C. Tell the parent that they will grow accustomed to the newborn.
• D. Provide reinforcement about infant care when the parent is present.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing reinforcement about infant care when the parent is present can help alleviate anxiety and promote positive parent-infant bonding. By offering guidance and support while the parent is interacting with the newborn, the nurse can help build the parent's confidence and strengthen the bond between the parent and the infant. Choice A is not ideal as it does not address the parent's anxiety and may increase stress levels. Choice B focuses on the parent's emotions without providing direct support for bonding. Choice C is dismissive and does not offer practical assistance in fostering bonding between the parent and the infant.

3. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

• A. Epidural anesthesia
• B. Urinary bladder catheterization
• C. Frequent pelvic examinations
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.

4. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

5. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

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