Nursing Elites

1. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Reinforce the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed
• B. Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
• C. Monitor the infant for signs of failure to thrive
• D. Check the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.

2. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?

• A. Leukorrhea
• B. Supine hypotension
• C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.

3. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Ventrogluteal
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Deltoid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vitamin K is typically administered in the vastus lateralis muscle of a newborn to prevent bleeding disorders. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and accessibility, allowing for easy and safe administration. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used in adults due to better muscle mass and less risk of injury to nearby structures. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults for IM injections, as it is a well-developed muscle suitable for injections in these populations.

5. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

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