a nurse is caring for a client who has just delivered a newborn the nurse notes secretions bubbling out of the newborns nose and mouth which of the fo
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A newborn is noted to have secretions bubbling out of the nose and mouth after delivery. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to suction the mouth with a bulb syringe. Suctioning the mouth first is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is clear, which takes precedence over suctioning the nose. This intervention helps maintain a patent airway and promotes adequate breathing in the newborn. Using a suction catheter with low negative pressure may not be appropriate as the newborn needs a gentle suction method like a bulb syringe. Turning the newborn on their side is important if there is a risk of aspiration, but clearing the mouth of secretions should be the priority to establish a clear airway.

2. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

3. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is best heard in the left lower quadrant of the client's abdomen. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant allows for optimal detection of fetal heart tones in this specific fetal position. Choice A (Left upper quadrant) is incorrect as it is not where the fetal heart tones are best heard in this scenario. Choice B (Right upper quadrant) is also incorrect as it is not the recommended area for assessing fetal heart tones in a left occipital anterior position. Choice D (Right lower quadrant) is incorrect as the focus should be on the left side due to the fetal position mentioned.

5. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.

Similar Questions

A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?
During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?

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