ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
- A. Dark green leafy vegetables
- B. Deep red or orange vegetables
- C. White bread and rice
- D. Meat, poultry, and fish
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.
2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
3. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?
- A. Evidence of a possible vaginal hematoma
- B. An indication of a cervical or perineal laceration
- C. A normal postpartum discharge of lochia
- D. Abnormally excessive lochia rubra flow
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.
4. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Missed miscarriage.' In a missed miscarriage, fetal and placental tissues are retained in the uterus after fetal demise, which matches the scenario described in the question. This situation often requires medical or surgical intervention to remove the remaining products of conception and prevent complications. 'Incomplete miscarriage' (Choice A) typically involves partial expulsion of products of conception, 'Inevitable miscarriage' (Choice C) indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped, and 'Complete miscarriage' (Choice D) signifies that all products of conception have been expelled from the uterus.
5. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
- B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
- C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
- D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.
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