Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

• A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
• B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
• C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
• D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

2. Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

• A. Ceftriaxone
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Zidovudine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the preferred medication to treat gonorrhea, a bacterial infection. It is essential to promptly treat gonorrhea to prevent complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and the spread of the infection to others. Fluconazole is used for fungal infections, Metronidazole treats certain bacterial and parasitic infections, and Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in HIV treatment; none of these are appropriate for gonorrhea.

3. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
• B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
• C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
• D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.

5. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

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