ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Chest pain
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.
3. A client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation is experiencing contractions every 45 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 45 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can pose risks to both the client and the fetus. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can help prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing, decreasing, or maintaining the oxytocin infusion can exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and increase the risks associated with it.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Vitamin B6
- D. Propranolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.
5. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. PT and INR
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
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