Nursing Elites

1. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

2. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

• A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
• B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
• C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
• D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

3. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

• A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
• B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
• C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 10 mg
• B. 20 mg
• C. 30 mg
• D. 40 mg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.

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