Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being admitted for induction of labor is receiving teaching about newborn safety from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room.
• B. I should include a photo of my baby along with any public birth announcements on social media.
• C. I will allow my baby to sleep on the bed in my room when I am in the shower.
• D. I should expect the nurses to carry my baby in their arms to the nursery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client should verify the identification badge of anyone removing their baby to ensure the infant's safety and prevent abduction. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the importance of strict identification protocols in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because including a photo of the baby in public announcements does not relate to newborn safety teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is unsafe to allow a baby to sleep on the bed unsupervised. Choice D is incorrect because nurses typically encourage parents to carry their baby to the nursery themselves for bonding and security reasons.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
• B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
• C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
• D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?

• A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
• B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
• C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
• D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.

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