Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being admitted for induction of labor is receiving teaching about newborn safety from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room.
• B. I should include a photo of my baby along with any public birth announcements on social media.
• C. I will allow my baby to sleep on the bed in my room when I am in the shower.
• D. I should expect the nurses to carry my baby in their arms to the nursery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client should verify the identification badge of anyone removing their baby to ensure the infant's safety and prevent abduction. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the importance of strict identification protocols in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because including a photo of the baby in public announcements does not relate to newborn safety teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is unsafe to allow a baby to sleep on the bed unsupervised. Choice D is incorrect because nurses typically encourage parents to carry their baby to the nursery themselves for bonding and security reasons.

2. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

• A. Migraines
• B. Hypertension
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

3. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to make?

• A. You will not receive medication through an IV for this test.
• B. You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.
• C. You do not need to eat or drink for 4 hours prior to the test.
• D. This test will help determine if your baby's lungs are mature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is choice B, 'You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.' The nonstress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to movements. Choice A is incorrect because medications are not typically administered during a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before the test. Choice D is incorrect because determining fetal lung maturity is usually done through other tests, not the nonstress test.

5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

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