Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Decreased urination
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.

3. A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with meals
• B. Take at bedtime
• C. Take with a glass of milk
• D. Take with a glass of orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.

4. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
• B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
• C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
• D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Liver function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

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