Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

• A. Monitor for polyuria
• B. Monitor for diaphoresis
• C. Monitor for abdominal pain
• D. Monitor for thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Liver function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat three large meals daily
• B. Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods
• C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
• D. Drink fluids between meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect because limiting caffeinated drinks is important, but the recommendation should focus on reducing intake, not specifying a number. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can lead to early satiety, making it difficult for the client to consume enough calories.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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