a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives which finding in the clients history is a contraindication to combined oral con
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

2. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

3. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

5. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

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