a nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control which of the following statements indicates understanding
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.

2. A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sitting at or below the client’s eye level is important when feeding a client with dysphagia. This position allows the nurse to closely observe the client for any signs of difficulty with swallowing, which can help prevent aspiration. Instructing the client to lift their chin when swallowing (choice A) is not recommended for clients with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Discouraging the client from coughing during feedings (choice B) is also not correct, as coughing may be a protective mechanism to prevent aspiration. Talking with the client during feedings (choice D) may distract the client and interfere with their ability to focus on swallowing safely.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

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