Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

• A. I should test my blood sugar before each meal.
• B. I can eat any foods as long as I take my insulin.
• C. I should avoid all carbohydrates in my diet.
• D. I will only need to monitor my blood sugar at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased temperature
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

4. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
• B. It is safe to give to children
• C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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