a client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of respiratory distress, the nurse should first suction the newborn's airway to clear any obstructions. This is a priority intervention as it helps ensure the airway is patent and allows for effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the newborn in a prone position, and notifying the healthcare provider are all important actions but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering oxygen may not be effective if the airway is obstructed. Placing the newborn in a prone position can worsen respiratory distress in infants. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to clear the airway takes precedence in this situation.

5. A client with a new ileostomy is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ileostomy stomas typically drain liquid continuously, unlike colostomies. This continuous drainage is a key characteristic that clients should understand postoperatively. Choice A is incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated is not directly related to understanding ileostomy care. Choice C is incorrect as changing the pouch system every two weeks is not a general rule and may vary depending on the individual's needs. Choice D is incorrect because the stoma size can change during the healing process and clients should be informed about this possibility.

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