Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.

2. A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?

• A. Influenza
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Gonorrhea
• D. Hepatitis B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

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