Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Inability to identify common objects
• C. Poor problem-solving ability
• D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Azithromycin
• C. Ceftriaxone
• D. Acyclovir

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ampicillin is the correct choice for treating group B streptococcus infections in pregnant women during labor to prevent neonatal infection. Group B streptococcus is commonly treated with penicillin or ampicillin; therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for group B streptococcus. Ceftriaxone is not the preferred antibiotic for this infection during labor. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like group B streptococcus.

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