ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for wounds. Which client statement indicates understanding?
- A. Remove blood-saturated dressings
- B. Apply clean dressings over the saturated ones and hold pressure
- C. Elevate the wound above heart level
- D. Leave the wound open to air
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying clean dressings over blood-saturated ones and holding pressure helps to control bleeding and prevent tissue disruption. Removing blood-saturated dressings can cause further damage by disrupting the forming clot. Elevating the wound above heart level is beneficial to reduce swelling, but it is not the best immediate action for a blood-saturated dressing. Leaving the wound open to air can increase the risk of infection and slow down the healing process.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
- C. Increase dietary potassium
- D. Encourage foods high in sodium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.
4. A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?
- A. 2
- B. 5
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.
5. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum sodium levels
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.
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