Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic.
• B. Check the client’s bowel sounds.
• C. Slow the rate of the feeding.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood pressure. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, it can elevate blood sugar levels. Hyperkalemia is also not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; instead, it can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels.

3. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

4. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Place the client on their side with their head forward
• B. Call for help
• C. Protect the client's head
• D. Restrain the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

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