ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Remove dye markings after each radiation treatment
- B. Apply a warm compress to the irradiated site
- C. Wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment
- D. Use a washcloth to bathe the treatment area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.
2. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
- B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours
- C. Plan for oxygen therapy with a rebreather mask
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
3. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
- A. Wipe from front to back after urination
- B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
- C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
- D. Wear loose-fitting underwear
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?
- A. Use sterile gloves only as necessary
- B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray
- C. Keep the dressing tray on a nearby surface
- D. Avoid speaking during the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray. Any contact with the sterile field by non-sterile items makes the field contaminated and requires restarting the procedure to maintain sterility. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should always be used during a sterile procedure to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing tray should be placed on a sterile surface, not on the client's bed, to maintain sterility. Choice D is also incorrect as talking during the procedure does not necessarily lead to contamination if proper aseptic technique is maintained.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
- D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.
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