ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Remove dye markings after each radiation treatment
- B. Apply a warm compress to the irradiated site
- C. Wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment
- D. Use a washcloth to bathe the treatment area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a sign of catheter occlusion?
- A. Bladder distention
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Dark urine
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bladder distention is the correct sign of catheter occlusion. When a catheter is occluded, the urine cannot drain properly, leading to the buildup of urine in the bladder and subsequent distention. Frequent urination, dark urine, and increased thirst are not typical signs of catheter occlusion. Frequent urination can be a sign of conditions like urinary tract infection, dark urine may indicate dehydration or other issues, and increased thirst can be related to various factors like diabetes or medication side effects.
3. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.
4. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
- A. Infection
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Fluid imbalance
- D. Pain management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?
- A. Check potassium levels
- B. Assess blood glucose levels
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Administer with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access