Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Remove dye markings after each radiation treatment
• B. Apply a warm compress to the irradiated site
• C. Wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment
• D. Use a washcloth to bathe the treatment area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

• A. Abruptio placentae
• B. Hydatidiform mole
• C. Preterm labor
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

4. When teaching about safety risks for adolescents, what should be included?

• A. Adolescents are more likely to follow rules
• B. Peer influence to participate in high-risk behaviors can lead to injury
• C. Most injuries occur during sports activities
• D. Adolescents are aware of the dangers of substance use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating about safety risks for adolescents, it is crucial to address the impact of peer influence on engaging in high-risk behaviors, which can result in injuries. Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are known to sometimes take risks and not always follow rules. Choice C is incorrect as injuries among adolescents can also happen outside of sports activities. Choice D is incorrect as adolescents may not always be fully aware of the dangers of substance use.

5. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

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