ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Remove dye markings after each radiation treatment
- B. Apply a warm compress to the irradiated site
- C. Wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment
- D. Use a washcloth to bathe the treatment area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.
2. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?
- A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
- B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
- C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
- D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.
3. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
- B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
- C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
- D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pruritus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Xerostomia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
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