Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 11,000/mm³
• B. Hgb 11.2 g/dL
• C. Hct 34%
• D. Platelets 140,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

• A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
• C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
• D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

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