a nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth the client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots what is t
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.

2. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

3. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe pain effectively. In this case, the client's stable respiratory rate of 14/min indicates that it is safe to administer an opioid for pain relief. Promethazine (choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not the first choice for severe pain management. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not be potent enough for severe pain relief associated with osteoporosis. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used as a first-line medication for severe pain.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.

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