Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Liver function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

• A. Gravida 3, Para 2
• B. Gravida 3, Para 3
• C. Gravida 4, Para 2
• D. Gravida 4, Para 3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

• A. Mood changes
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Heart rate
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

5. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

• A. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch
• B. Wiping from front to back
• C. Using perfumed toilet paper
• D. Urinating after intercourse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

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