a nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

4. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.” Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.

5. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

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