ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply tape to the client’s skin before surgery.
- B. Ensure the surgical suite is well-ventilated.
- C. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette.
- D. Schedule the surgery at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
2. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
- D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
4. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
- B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
- C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
- D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access