ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply tape to the client’s skin before surgery.
- B. Ensure the surgical suite is well-ventilated.
- C. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette.
- D. Schedule the surgery at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
- A. Low potassium diet
- B. High fiber diet
- C. Low fat diet
- D. Low sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
3. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.
4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.
5. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
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