ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply tape to the client’s skin before surgery.
- B. Ensure the surgical suite is well-ventilated.
- C. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette.
- D. Schedule the surgery at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
2. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
- C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
- D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.
3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Monitor for signs of illness.
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
- D. Monitor immunization compliance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray
- B. Administer an antiemetic
- C. Inform the client's provider
- D. Check the client's apical pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
- A. Oxygen saturation 94%
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing
- D. Peripheral cyanosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access