Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer it intramuscularly
• B. Monitor APTT levels
• C. Give it in the abdomen
• D. Administer rapidly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.

3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

• A. Monitor for signs of illness.
• B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
• C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
• D. Monitor immunization compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

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