a nurse is assessing a 1 hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus which of the following actions should the nu
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

2. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.

3. A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.

4. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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