Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

2. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should not wash my hair before the procedure.”
• B. “I will be given a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.”
• C. “I should refrain from eating before the procedure.”
• D. “I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Methotrexate
• B. Pyridostigmine
• C. Baclofen
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Pruritus
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

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