Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for increased heart rate
• B. Take the medication at the same time every day
• C. It should be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.

3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

5. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

• A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
• C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

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