a nurse is assessing a client who has severe dehydration which finding indicates effective treatment
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

2. A newborn demonstrates respiratory distress, and routine suctioning with the bulb syringe is unsuccessful. What is the next nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When routine suctioning with a bulb syringe is unsuccessful in a newborn demonstrating respiratory distress, the next appropriate nursing intervention is to suction with a mechanical device. This method ensures effective removal of any airway obstruction. Initiating chest compressions (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the primary concern is airway clearance. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, but addressing the airway obstruction should take precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be considered after attempting mechanical suction if the newborn's condition does not improve.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Ceftriaxone should be reconstituted with sterile water, not saline. Reconstituting it with normal saline can result in a chemical interaction and precipitation of the drug. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (choice C) is not necessary as ceftriaxone is usually given as an intravenous bolus or drip over a shorter period. Monitoring for signs of toxicity (choice D) is important but not the immediate action required for preparing the medication. The priority is to ensure proper reconstitution with the appropriate solvent, which is sterile water.

4. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson’s disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson’s disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson’s disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.

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