ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
- A. Sunken anterior fontanel
- B. Tenting skin turgor
- C. Flat anterior fontanel
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.
2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
- B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
- C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
- D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid strawberries and citrus fruits
- B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
- C. Take on a full stomach
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can hinder iron absorption, so it's important to take the medication with other types of fluids. Choice A is incorrect because strawberries and citrus fruits are sources of vitamin C, which actually enhance iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate can lead to an overdose and severe side effects.
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