a nurse is assessing a client who has severe dehydration which finding indicates effective treatment
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

2. A client with mild persistent asthma is being taught about montelukast by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that works by reducing swelling and mucus production in the airways, helping to manage asthma symptoms in the long term. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because montelukast is not used for immediate relief during asthma attacks, pre-exercise prophylaxis, or short-term treatment; instead, it is taken regularly for asthma control.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of duloxetine. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for liver function.' Duloxetine is an antidepressant medication, not an antipsychotic, so choice A is incorrect. One of the common side effects of duloxetine is weight gain, making choice B incorrect. Choice D, stating that duloxetine has no side effects, is inaccurate as all medications have the potential for side effects. Monitoring liver function is crucial with duloxetine because it can impact liver function, emphasizing the importance of regular checks to ensure the client's safety.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

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