Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

2. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

• A. Premature ovarian failure
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Dysmenorrhea
• D. Recurrent urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

3. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
• B. It is safe to give to children
• C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated albumin
• B. Elevated ammonia
• C. Decreased total bilirubin
• D. Decreased prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

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