ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?
- A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
- C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of depression. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Changes in sleep patterns
- C. Weight loss
- D. Both B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of depression, healthcare professionals should look for changes in sleep patterns and weight loss. These are common symptoms associated with depression. Increased energy (choice A) is not typically a sign of depression, as individuals with depression often experience fatigue and a lack of energy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
4. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?
- A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
- B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
- C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
- D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.
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