a nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd and is receiving oxygen therapy which of the following findings indic
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

2. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.

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