Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

• A. Gravida 3, Para 2
• B. Gravida 3, Para 3
• C. Gravida 4, Para 2
• D. Gravida 4, Para 3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place several pillows behind the client’s head
• B. Place the client in a Sims' position
• C. Keep the client’s neck in a midline position
• D. Maintain flexion of the client’s hips at a 90° angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client’s neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client’s head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.

3. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum sodium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips
• B. Bleeding gums
• C. Foul-smelling breath
• D. Red, open sores in the mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

5. A nurse in the telemetry unit is receiving the laboratory findings for an adult male client who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is an expected finding for the client?

• A. Troponin I (TnI) 8 ng/mL
• B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) 10 ng/L
• C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 units/L
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 75 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial infarction, and levels of 8 ng/mL are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is more related to heart failure rather than myocardial infarction, making choice B incorrect. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver enzyme and not specific to myocardial infarction, so choice C is incorrect. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a type of cholesterol and is not typically used to diagnose or monitor myocardial infarction, making choice D incorrect.

Similar Questions