ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?
- A. Gravida 3, Para 2
- B. Gravida 3, Para 3
- C. Gravida 4, Para 2
- D. Gravida 4, Para 3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.
2. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. History of fibroids
- B. Early menopause
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should not be taken with nitrates
- B. Monitor for headaches
- C. It is a prescription medication
- D. It may have side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.
4. A client has been prescribed metformin. What should be included in the teaching?
- A. It can cause weight gain
- B. Take it with food
- C. It is an insulin
- D. Monitor for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take metformin with food. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is not typically associated with weight gain. Choice C is wrong as metformin is not an insulin but a medication that helps control blood sugar levels. Choice D is also incorrect as metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
- A. 4 g sodium diet
- B. Potassium-restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.
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