a nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time the client delivered two full term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

2. A nurse is planning care for a patient who follows the Mormon belief system. What modifications should the nurse include to meet Mormon dietary practices?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer non-caffeinated beverage options. Mormons avoid caffeinated beverages, so providing non-caffeinated options aligns with their religious practices. Choice A is incorrect because offering only vegetarian meal options is not a specific requirement of the Mormon dietary practices. Choice C is incorrect as kosher meals are associated with Jewish dietary laws, not specific to the Mormon belief system. Choice D is incorrect as limiting meat to only fish and poultry is not a specific dietary requirement for Mormons.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

4. A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

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