a nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time the client delivered two full term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

2. A nurse is receiving a report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow first because cloudy dialysate outflow suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate intervention. Assessing and addressing peritonitis promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and D present important findings that require attention but are not as urgent as peritonitis, which can quickly escalate and endanger the client's health.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.

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