Nursing Elites

1. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Liver function
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina. As a beta-blocker, it primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to assess the drug's effectiveness and ensure that it is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring liver function, serum potassium levels, or blood glucose is not typically required for clients taking metoprolol, as its primary impact is on the heart and blood vessels, making choice A the most appropriate monitoring parameter.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It should not be taken with nitrates
• B. Monitor for headaches
• C. It is a prescription medication
• D. It may have side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Hypotonia
• B. Moderate tremors of the extremities
• C. Axillary temperature 36.1°C (96.9°F)
• D. Excessive crying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

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