Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

• A. Periodic tingling of fingers
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Leg cramps
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine position
• C. Side-lying position
• D. Semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Verify INR levels
• B. Administer with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

• A. Increase fluid intake
• B. Empty the bladder
• C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
• D. Take a sedative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I will feel better immediately after starting this medication.
• B. I can expect to urinate frequently while taking this medication.
• C. I may experience difficulty sleeping while taking this medication.
• D. I should decrease my sodium intake while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I may experience difficulty sleeping while taking this medication.' Sertraline can cause insomnia, especially when first starting the medication, so the client should be aware of this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because feeling better immediately, increased urination, and decreasing sodium intake are not commonly associated side effects of sertraline.

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