a nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potentia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

4. A nurse is performing a dressing change for a client who has a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's pain level first. Assessing the client's pain is crucial before proceeding with any procedure, including dressing changes. This step ensures that appropriate pain management measures can be implemented, making the wound care process as comfortable as possible for the patient. Applying skin preparation to wound edges (choice A) can come after addressing the pain. While cleansing the wound with normal saline (choice B) and donning sterile gloves (choice C) are important steps in wound care, they should follow the assessment of the client's pain level to prioritize the patient's comfort and well-being.

5. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.

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