Nursing Elites

1. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
• B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
• C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
• D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Report a decrease in urine output.
• D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

3. A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

• A. Wear an N95 respirator while caring for the client.
• B. Use a dedicated stethoscope for the client.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urinary output.
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.

4. A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?

• A. Estrogen causes increased appetite
• B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the cardiac sphincter allowing acid to reflux
• C. HCG hormone leads to increased gastric acidity
• D. The uterus compresses the stomach early in pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the smooth muscles in the body, including the cardiac sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid to reflux into the esophagus, leading to heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the physiological mechanism that causes heartburn during pregnancy. Estrogen causing increased appetite (Choice A) is not directly linked to heartburn. HCG hormone increasing gastric acidity (Choice C) is not the primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy. The uterus compressing the stomach early in pregnancy (Choice D) may contribute to feelings of fullness or bloating but is not the main cause of heartburn.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that leads to infections. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, a potentially life-threatening complication, and must be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Constipation) is a common side effect of clozapine but is not as urgent as fever. Blurred vision (Choice B) and dry mouth (Choice D) are side effects of clozapine but are not indicative of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis.

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