ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
- B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
- C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
- D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Verify INR levels
- B. Administer with food
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels
- D. Assess liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Improved mobility
- D. Normal temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
- A. Low potassium diet
- B. High fiber diet
- C. Low fat diet
- D. Low sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
5. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
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