Nursing Elites

1. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
• B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
• C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
• D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions about breast engorgement to a client who has decided not to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I can wear a supportive bra
• B. I will apply cold compresses to my breasts
• C. I will manually express breast milk
• D. I can take a mild analgesic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Manually expressing breast milk will stimulate more milk production, which contradicts the goal of reducing milk supply in clients who choose not to breastfeed. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that can help relieve breast engorgement without promoting further milk production.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the motor skill development of a 15-month-old toddler during a well-child visit. What gross motor skills should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Walks without assistance using a wide stance
• B. Climbs stairs with assistance
• C. Runs smoothly
• D. Kicks a ball forward

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 15 months, toddlers typically walk independently but may do so with a wide stance for balance. Choice B, climbing stairs with assistance, is more common around 18 months. Choice C, running smoothly, is usually achieved around 2 years of age. Choice D, kicking a ball forward, generally develops around 2 to 3 years of age. Therefore, for a 15-month-old toddler, the nurse should expect the child to walk without assistance using a wide stance for balance.

4. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

5. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

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