Nursing Elites

1. Prior to administering a blood transfusion, what should the healthcare professional do first?

• A. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client's identity.
• C. Obtain the blood product from the blood bank.
• D. Check the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity is the essential initial step before administering a blood transfusion. This action is crucial to confirm that the correct blood product is being administered to the right client, thereby preventing any potential errors or adverse reactions. Ensuring patient safety is paramount in healthcare, and verifying the client's identity is a fundamental safety measure that should always be prioritized.

2. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?

• A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
• B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
• C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
• D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.

3. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
• B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
• C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
• D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.

4. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for digoxin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take your pulse before taking the medication.
• B. Take the medication with an antacid.
• C. Double the dose if you miss one.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for digoxin is to take their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia as a side effect, and monitoring the pulse helps in assessing the heart rate prior to medication administration. This precaution allows for the identification of any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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