ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
- B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
- C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
- D. Weigh the client weekly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.
2. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?
- A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
- C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
- D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
4. When assessing a client with chronic pain, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of the client's pain?
- A. The client's vital signs.
- B. The client's self-report of pain.
- C. The client's body language.
- D. The client's medical history.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's self-report of pain is the most reliable indicator of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's self-report provides direct insight into their perception of pain intensity, quality, and impact on daily life. Vital signs, body language, and medical history can offer additional information but may not accurately reflect the client's actual pain experience. Therefore, relying on the client's self-report ensures a more accurate assessment of their pain and helps in tailoring appropriate interventions and treatment plans.
5. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
- B. I will take the medication with food.
- C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
- D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.
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