ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Vastus lateralis muscle
- D. Rectus femoris muscle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.
2. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
- B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
- C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
- D. Weigh the client weekly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.
3. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is receiving IV therapy via a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following findings is an indication of infiltration?
- A. Redness at the infusion site
- B. Edema at the infusion site
- C. Warmth at the infusion site
- D. Oozing of blood at the infusion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema at the infusion site is an indication of infiltration, where fluid leaks into the surrounding tissues causing swelling. This can compromise the delivery of medication and fluids, potentially leading to complications. Redness, warmth, and oozing of blood are more suggestive of inflammation or infection rather than infiltration. Infiltration requires prompt recognition and intervention to prevent further issues with the IV therapy.
5. A client with gout is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of purine-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of purine-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of purine-rich foods is essential in managing gout as purines break down into uric acid, contributing to gout symptoms. Increasing purine-rich foods would exacerbate the condition by increasing uric acid levels. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing sodium-rich foods (choice C) is not recommended for gout management, and decreasing potassium-rich foods (choice D) is unrelated to gout.
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