a nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client which of the following injection sites should the nurse select
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

2. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

3. A client with celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Celiac disease requires the avoidance of gluten-containing foods to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Gluten is found in wheat, barley, and rye. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the dietary requirements for managing celiac disease. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten or lactose would be detrimental for someone with celiac disease.

4. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

5. What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare is to establish a therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the client. Through effective communication, trust, empathy, and understanding can be fostered, which are essential for providing quality care and promoting positive health outcomes. Building a therapeutic relationship enhances patient satisfaction, improves adherence to treatment plans, and increases the likelihood of successful health outcomes.

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