Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare?

• A. To gather client information.
• B. To provide client education.
• C. To establish a therapeutic relationship.
• D. To document client care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare is to establish a therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the client. Through effective communication, trust, empathy, and understanding can be fostered, which are essential for providing quality care and promoting positive health outcomes. Building a therapeutic relationship enhances patient satisfaction, improves adherence to treatment plans, and increases the likelihood of successful health outcomes.

2. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take your pulse before taking the medication.
• B. Take the medication with an antacid.
• C. Double the dose if you miss one.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take your pulse before taking the medication.' When administering digoxin, it is crucial to monitor the pulse rate because digoxin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Checking the pulse helps in assessing the heart rate before taking the medication, as bradycardia is a common side effect of digoxin. Choice B is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with antacids, as they can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect; the dose should never be doubled if a dose is missed. Choice D is incorrect because taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal can also affect its absorption. Therefore, the essential instruction for the client is to monitor the pulse before taking digoxin.

4. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.

5. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

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