ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with lactose intolerance is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which statement by the client shows an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- B. I should increase my intake of dairy products.
- C. I should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- D. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should avoid foods that contain lactose.' Lactose intolerance results from the inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. Avoiding foods that contain lactose is essential in managing symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy intake would worsen symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because gluten is unrelated to lactose intolerance. Choice D is incorrect because high-fiber foods are beneficial for other conditions but do not specifically address lactose intolerance.
2. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse offer?
- A. Milk
- B. Vegetable juice
- C. Chicken broth
- D. Orange juice with pulp
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A clear liquid diet consists of easily digestible transparent liquids. Chicken broth is an appropriate choice as it meets the criteria of being clear and liquid, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. Milk, vegetable juice, and orange juice with pulp are not considered clear liquids. Milk is not transparent, vegetable juice is not clear, and orange juice with pulp contains solid particles, all of which do not align with the requirements of a clear liquid diet.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
4. A client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of salt.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included when a client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril is to 'Avoid foods high in potassium.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be advised to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent potential complications associated with elevated potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing salt intake, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to lisinopril therapy and may not be beneficial or necessary for the client's condition.
5. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
- B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
- C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
- D. Weigh the client weekly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.
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