ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with lactose intolerance is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which statement by the client shows an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- B. I should increase my intake of dairy products.
- C. I should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- D. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should avoid foods that contain lactose.' Lactose intolerance results from the inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. Avoiding foods that contain lactose is essential in managing symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy intake would worsen symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because gluten is unrelated to lactose intolerance. Choice D is incorrect because high-fiber foods are beneficial for other conditions but do not specifically address lactose intolerance.
2. Following a total hip arthroplasty, what intervention should the healthcare provider implement for the client?
- A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- C. Position the client on the operative side.
- D. Keep the client’s legs adducted.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is crucial post hip arthroplasty surgery to prevent hip dislocation. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment and prevents legs from crossing midline, reducing the risk of hip prosthesis dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees, positioning the client on the operative side, or keeping the client's legs adducted are not recommended postoperative interventions for a total hip arthroplasty, as they can increase the risk of complications and compromise the surgical site.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is receiving IV therapy via a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following findings is an indication of infiltration?
- A. Redness at the infusion site
- B. Edema at the infusion site
- C. Warmth at the infusion site
- D. Oozing of blood at the infusion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema at the infusion site is an indication of infiltration, where fluid leaks into the surrounding tissues causing swelling. This can compromise the delivery of medication and fluids, potentially leading to complications. Redness, warmth, and oozing of blood are more suggestive of inflammation or infection rather than infiltration. Infiltration requires prompt recognition and intervention to prevent further issues with the IV therapy.
5. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
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