Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
• C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.

2. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

4. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

5. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

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