ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with hypothyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of iodine-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of iodine-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of iodine-rich foods is beneficial for clients with hypothyroidism as iodine is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis. Adequate iodine intake helps to support thyroid function in individuals with hypothyroidism, making choice A the most appropriate response indicating an understanding of the dietary management for this condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing iodine-rich foods, increasing potassium-rich foods, or decreasing sodium-rich foods are not the recommended dietary modifications for hypothyroidism. In fact, decreasing iodine-rich foods could exacerbate hypothyroidism due to the essential role of iodine in thyroid hormone production.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- C. Use a 1-inch needle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.
4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Massage the ulcer
- B. Apply a heating pad
- C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
- D. Use alcohol-based cleansers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a crucial intervention in the management of pressure ulcers. This action helps redistribute pressure, reducing the risk of further skin breakdown and promoting wound healing. Massaging the ulcer can cause further damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Applying a heating pad can increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided. Alcohol-based cleansers are too harsh for pressure ulcers and can irritate the skin, potentially delaying healing.
5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access