Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• B. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease. Avoiding gluten-containing foods is crucial to managing the condition and preventing symptoms and complications associated with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing dairy intake (Choice B) is not necessary for celiac disease management. Avoiding lactose (Choice C) is relevant for individuals with lactose intolerance, not celiac disease. While high-fiber foods (Choice D) are generally beneficial for health, they are not specifically indicated for celiac disease management.

2. When assessing a client with chronic pain, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of the client's pain?

• A. The client's vital signs.
• B. The client's self-report of pain.
• C. The client's body language.
• D. The client's medical history.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's self-report of pain is the most reliable indicator of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's self-report provides direct insight into their perception of pain intensity, quality, and impact on daily life. Vital signs, body language, and medical history can offer additional information but may not accurately reflect the client's actual pain experience. Therefore, relying on the client's self-report ensures a more accurate assessment of their pain and helps in tailoring appropriate interventions and treatment plans.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Rectus femoris muscle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

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