Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

2. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
• B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
• D. Weigh the client weekly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.

3. During a teaching session on dietary management for heart failure, a client makes a statement. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in sodium.
• B. I should increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. I should decrease my intake of fluids.
• D. I should decrease my intake of fiber.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreasing fluid intake is essential in managing fluid retention and symptoms of heart failure. Restricting fluids helps prevent excessive fluid buildup in the body, thus reducing the workload on the heart and alleviating symptoms like swelling and shortness of breath. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of foods high in sodium can exacerbate fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium-rich foods is beneficial for some heart conditions but not heart failure specifically. Decreasing fiber intake is not a standard recommendation for heart failure management.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Insert the rectal tube 15.2 cm (6 inches) into the client's rectum
• B. Wear clean gloves before inserting the tubing
• C. Position the client on their left side
• D. Hold the solution bag 91 cm (36 inches) above the client's rectum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client on their left side is crucial when administering an enema as it helps facilitate the flow of the solution into the sigmoid and descending colon. This position allows gravity to assist in the process. Placing the client on the left side is a standard practice to promote optimal outcomes during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A provides a specific measurement for the insertion depth of the rectal tube, which is not typically necessary to include in the plan of action. Choice B is essential but not specific to enema administration. Choice D mentions holding the solution bag without specifying the correct height, which should typically be around 18-24 inches above the rectum for a cleansing enema.

5. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

Similar Questions