ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing
1. A client is being discharged with a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Monitor your weight daily.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Change positions slowly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client being discharged with a prescription for furosemide is to 'Change positions slowly.' Furosemide, a diuretic, can cause dizziness and orthostatic hypotension, increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the body can adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the likelihood of falls and related injuries.
2. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
3. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hepatitis about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with hepatitis, it is important to decrease the intake of high-protein foods. High-protein foods can be harder for the liver to process and may exacerbate symptoms or contribute to liver damage. Recommending a diet with moderate protein intake is beneficial for managing symptoms and promoting liver health. Choice A is incorrect as increasing high-protein foods can strain the liver. Choice C is not directly related to hepatitis unless there is an intolerance present. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing dairy products may not be suitable for all individuals with hepatitis, especially if there are underlying liver conditions that could be aggravated by certain dairy components.
4. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of iodine-rich foods.
- B. You should avoid foods that contain iodine.
- C. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In hyperthyroidism, it is advisable to avoid foods that contain iodine to help manage the condition and prevent complications. Excessive iodine intake can exacerbate hyperthyroidism symptoms by stimulating the thyroid gland. Therefore, the nurse should include information about avoiding iodine-rich foods in the client's dietary management teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms, increasing dairy products is not specific to managing hyperthyroidism, and avoiding gluten is more relevant for conditions like celiac disease, not hyperthyroidism.
5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?
- A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
- C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
- D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.
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