ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in iron.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.' Iron-deficiency anemia is managed by increasing the consumption of iron-rich foods to improve iron levels in the body. Foods high in iron include red meat, poultry, fish, beans, lentils, and iron-fortified cereals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing intake of iron-rich foods or increasing intake of calcium-rich foods would not address the deficiency in iron levels that characterizes iron-deficiency anemia.
2. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
- B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
- C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
- D. Weigh the client weekly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.
3. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
- A. To provide health insurance coverage for all Americans.
- B. To ensure the confidentiality of health information.
- C. To reduce the cost of healthcare.
- D. To increase access to healthcare services.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to ensure the confidentiality and security of health information. HIPAA establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other personal health information. By safeguarding the privacy of health data, HIPAA aims to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive patient information, preventing unauthorized access and disclosure. This focus on privacy and security helps build trust between patients and healthcare providers, ensuring that personal health information is handled responsibly and ethically.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- C. Use a 1-inch needle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
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