a nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel which of the following should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

2. The nurse instructs the patient about incentive spirometry as part of preoperative teaching. Which phase of the nursing process does this illustrate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing a patient about incentive spirometry falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this phase, nursing interventions are put into action. Assessment (choice A) involves collecting data about the patient's condition, planning (choice B) involves setting goals and creating a care plan, and evaluation (choice D) involves assessing the outcomes of nursing interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it reflects the active teaching and intervention part of the process.

3. A client in respiratory distress who is on oxygen is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate short-term goal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because maintaining oxygen saturation of 90% is a specific, measurable short-term goal that ensures adequate oxygenation. Choice A is not a goal focused on the client's physiological status but rather on the equipment. Choice B is related to activities of daily living and does not address the respiratory distress issue. Choice C is subjective and may not reflect the actual physiological improvement in the client's condition.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

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