a nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of copd and is experiencing dyspnea which of the findings should the nurse ex
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PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.

3. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a circumcised newborn. To prevent diaper adherence to the penis, what will be recommended to apply during diaper changes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petroleum jelly is recommended to prevent the diaper from sticking to the circumcised area, reducing irritation and promoting healing. It should be applied during every diaper change until the site heals. Baby oil (Choice A) is not recommended as it may not provide a sufficient barrier to prevent adherence. Antibiotic ointment (Choice B) is not typically used for this purpose and can sometimes cause irritation. Alcohol wipes (Choice D) are too harsh for the sensitive skin of a newborn and can cause irritation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

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