Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Flaring of the nostrils
• B. Normal respiratory rate
• C. Clear lung sounds
• D. Decreased work of breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• B. Glucose 50 mg/dL
• C. Bilirubin 4 mg/dL
• D. Platelets 200,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

• A. Assess the patient's temperature
• B. Document the patient’s response
• C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Administer epinephrine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering blood products, assessing the patient’s temperature is crucial. This action provides baseline data to detect any febrile reactions during or after the transfusion. Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction, so continuous monitoring of vital signs is essential throughout the procedure. Documenting the patient’s response (choice B) is important but comes after assessing the temperature. Priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride (choice C) is not directly related to the initial action required before administering blood products. Administering epinephrine (choice D) is not indicated unless there is a severe allergic reaction, which is not the standard initial step before blood product administration.

5. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is taken with food
• B. It can cause hyperglycemia
• C. It should be taken once daily
• D. It is an injectable medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.

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