Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a toddler diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Use a designated stethoscope when caring for the toddler
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask
• C. Remove the disposable gown after leaving the toddler’s room
• D. Place the toddler in a room with negative air pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope is the correct action when caring for a toddler diagnosed with RSV. This measure helps prevent the spread of infection to other clients by reducing the risk of contamination. Wearing an N95 respirator mask is not necessary for routine care of a toddler with RSV unless performing aerosol-generating procedures. Removing the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room is important for infection control but not specific to RSV care. Placing the toddler in a room with negative air pressure is not a standard practice for managing RSV in toddlers.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• D. aPTT 30 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 14 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

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