Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
• D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.

2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Flaring of the nostrils
• B. Normal respiratory rate
• C. Clear lung sounds
• D. Decreased work of breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

3. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?

• A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
• B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
• C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
• D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

• A. Increase fluid intake
• B. Empty the bladder
• C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
• D. Take a sedative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?

• A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
• B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
• C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
• D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.

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