Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

• A. Hypertonia
• B. Jitteriness
• C. Acrocyanosis
• D. Generalized petechiae

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs may include irritability, poor feeding, and lethargy. Choice A, Hypertonia, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia but rather with conditions like hypocalcemia. Acrocyanosis (Choice C) is a benign condition characterized by peripheral cyanosis and is not directly linked to hypoglycemia. Generalized petechiae (Choice D) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding and are not specific to hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray
• B. Administer an antiemetic
• C. Inform the client's provider
• D. Check the client's apical pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 14 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Heart rate
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.

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