ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:
- A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
- B. Probable sign of pregnancy
- C. Positive sign of pregnancy
- D. Possible sign of pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.
2. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
- A. History of anxiety
- B. Socioeconomic status
- C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
- D. Support from family members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
4. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which of the following types of immunity?
- A. Innate immunity
- B. Passive immunity
- C. Acquired immunity
- D. Natural immunity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Immunizations provide acquired immunity. They work by introducing antigens into the body, which triggers the immune system to produce antibodies specific to that antigen. Choice A, 'Innate immunity,' refers to the natural defense mechanisms an organism is born with and does not involve immunizations. Choice B, 'Passive immunity,' is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies and does not involve immunizations. Choice D, 'Natural immunity,' is a general term that encompasses all immunity that is not acquired through deliberate immunization or passive transfer of antibodies.
5. A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client’s family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what’s going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Request that the provider provide more information to the family.
- B. Refer the family to a support group for grief counseling.
- C. Offer to answer questions that family members have.
- D. Ask the family what the provider has discussed with them.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.
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